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1. A company has two open seats, Seat A and Seat B...

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1. A company has two open seats, Seat A and Seat B, on its board of directors. There are 6 candidates vying for these 2 positions. There will be a single election to determine the winner of both open seats. As the owner of 100 shares of stock, you will receive one vote per share for each open seat. You decide to cast all 200 of your votes for a single candidate. What is this type of voting called? A. democratic B. cumulative C. straight D. deferred E. proxy 2. You cannot attend the shareholder's meeting for Alpha United so you authorize another shareholder to vote on your behalf. What is the granting of this authority called? A. altering B. cumulative voting C. straight voting D. indenture agreement E. voting by proxy 3. The secondary market is best defined by which one of the following? A. market in which subordinated shares are issued and resold B. market conducted solely by brokers C. market dominated by dealers D. market where outstanding shares of stock are resold E. market where warrants are offered and sold 4. A floor broker on the NYSE does which one of the following? A. supervises the commission brokers for a financial firm B. trades for his or her personal inventory C. executes orders on behalf of a commission broker D. maintains an inventory and takes the role of a specialist E. is charged with maintaining a liquid, orderly market 5. National Trucking has paid an annual dividend of $1.00 per share on its common stock for the past fifteen years and is expected to continue paying a dollar a share long into the future. Given this, one share of the firm's stock is: A. basically worthless as it offers no growth potential. B. equal in value to the present value of $1 paid one year from today. C. priced the same as a $1 perpetuity. D. valued at an assumed growth rate of one percent. E. worth $1 a share in the current market. 6. The dividend growth model: I. assumes that dividends increase at a constant rate forever. II. can be used to compute a stock price at any point in time. III. can be used to value zero-growth stocks. IV. requires the growth rate to be less than the required return. A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. I, III, and IV only D. I, II, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV 7. Answer this question based on the dividend growth model. If you expect the market rate of return to increase across the board on all equity securities, then you should also expect: A. an increase in all stock values. B. all stock values to remain constant. C. a decrease in all stock values. D. dividend-paying stocks to maintain a constant price while non-dividend paying stocks decrease in value. E. dividend-paying stocks to increase in price while non-dividend paying stocks decrease in value. 8. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the two-stage dividend growth model? A. G1 cannot be negative. B. Pt = Dt/R. C. G1 must be greater than G2. D. G1 can be greater than R. E. R must be less than G1 but greater than G2. 9. A project has an initial cost of $27,400 and a market value of $32,600. What is the difference between these two values called? A. net present value B. internal return C. payback value D. profitability index E. discounted payback 10. Which one of the following methods of project analysis is defined as computing the value of a project based upon the present value of the project's anticipated cash flows? A. constant dividend growth model B. discounted cash flow valuation C. average accounting return D. expected earnings model E. internal rate of return 11. The internal rate of return is defined as the: A. maximum rate of return a firm expects to earn on a project. B. rate of return a project will generate if the project in financed solely with internal funds. C. discount rate that equates the net cash inflows of a project to zero. D. discount rate which causes the net present value of a project to equal zero. E. discount rate that causes the profitability index for a project to equal zero. 12. A project has a net present value of zero. Which one of the following best describes this project? A. The project has a zero percent rate of return. B. The project requires no initial cash investment. C. The project has no cash flows. D. The summation of all of the project's cash flows is zero. E. The project's cash inflows equal its cash outflows in current dollar terms. 13. Rossiter Restaurants is analyzing a project that requires $180,000 of fixed assets. When the project ends, those assets are expected to have an aftertax salvage value of $45,000. How is the $45,000 salvage value handled when computing the net present value of the project? A. reduction in the cash outflow at time zero B. cash inflow in the final year of the project C. cash inflow for the year following the final year of the project D. cash inflow prorated over the life of the project E. not included in the net present value 14. Which of the following are advantages of the payback method of project analysis? I. works well for research and development projects II. liquidity bias III. ease of use IV. arbitrary cutoff point A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. II and IV only E. II, III, and IV only 15. Which one of the following correctly applies to the average accounting rate of return? A. It considers the time value of money. B. It measures net income as a percentage of the sales generated by a project. C. It is the best method of analyzing mutually exclusive projects from a financial point of view. D. It is the primary methodology used in analyzing independent projects. E. It can be compared to the return on assets ratio. 16. Which of the following are considered weaknesses in the average accounting return method of project analysis? I. exclusion of time value of money considerations II. need of a cutoff rate III. easily obtainable information for computation IV. based on accounting values A. I only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. I, II, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV 17. The fact that a proposed project is analyzed based on the project's incremental cash flows is the assumption behind which one of the following principles? A. underlying value principle B. stand-alone principle C. equivalent cost principle D. salvage principle E. fundamental principle 18. Which one of the following best describes the concept of erosion? A. expenses that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered B. change in net working capital related to implementing a new project C. the cash flows of a new project that come at the expense of a firm's existing cash flows D. the alternative that is forfeited when a fixed asset is utilized by a project E. the differences in a firm's cash flows with and without a particular project 19. Which one of the following is the depreciation method which allows accelerated write-offs of property under various lifetime classifications? A. IRR B. ACRS C. AAR D. straight-line to zero E. straight-line with salvage 20. The annual annuity stream of payments that has the same present value as a project's costs is referred to as which one of the following? A. yearly incremental costs B. sunk costs C. opportunity costs D. erosion cost E. equivalent annual cost 21. Danielle's is a furniture store that is considering adding appliances to its offerings. Which of the following should be considered incremental cash flows of this project? I. utilizing the credit offered by a supplier to purchase the appliance inventory II. benefiting from increased furniture sales to appliance customers III. borrowing money from a bank to fund the appliance project IV. purchasing parts for inventory to handle any appliance repairs that might be necessary A. I and II only B. III and IV only C. I, II, and IV only D. II, III, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV 22. Which one of the following is an example of a sunk cost? A. $1,500 of lost sales because an item was out of stock B. $1,200 paid to repair a machine last year C. $20,000 project that must be forfeited if another project is accepted D. $4,500 reduction in current shoe sales if a store commences selling sandals E. $1,800 increase in comic book sales if a store commences selling puzzles 23. Which one of the following best illustrates erosion as it relates to a hot dog stand located on the beach? A. providing both ketchup and mustard for its customer's use B. repairing the roof of the hot dog stand because of water damage C. selling fewer hot dogs because hamburgers were added to the menu D. offering French fries but not onion rings E. losing sales due to bad weather 24. Changes in the net working capital requirements: A. can affect the cash flows of a project every year of the project's life. B. only affect the initial cash flows of a project. C. only affect the cash flow at time zero and the final year of a project. D. are generally excluded from project analysis due to their irrelevance to the total project. E. reflect only the changes in the current asset accounts. 25. Scenario analysis is defined as the: A. determination of the initial cash outlay required to implement a project. B. determination of changes in NPV estimates when what-if questions are posed. C. isolation of the effect that a single variable has on the NPV of a project. D. separation of a project's sunk costs from its opportunity costs. E. analysis of the effects that a project's terminal cash flows has on the project's NPV. 26. Which one of the following is defined as the sales level that corresponds to a zero NPV? A. accounting break-even B. leveraged break-even C. marginal break-even D. cash break-even E. financial break-even 27. Which one of the following is the relationship between the percentage change in operating cash flow and the percentage change in quantity sold? A. degree of sensitivity B. degree of operating leverage C. accounting break-even D. cash break-even E. contribution margin 28. The procedure of allocating a fixed amount of funds for capital spending to each business unit is called: A. marginal spending. B. capital preservation. C. soft rationing. D. hard rationing. E. marginal rationing. 29. Which one of the following will be used in the computation of the best-case analysis of a proposed project? A. minimal number of units that are expected to be produced and sold B. the lowest expected salvage value that can be obtained for a project's fixed assets C. the most anticipated sales price per unit D. the lowest variable cost per unit that can reasonably be expected E. the highest level of fixed costs that is actually anticipated 30. Simulation analysis is based on assigning a _____ and analyzing the results. A. narrow range of values to a single variable B. narrow range of values to multiple variables simultaneously C. wide range of values to a single variable D. wide range of values to multiple variables simultaneously E. single value to each of the variables 31. Which of the following are inversely related to variable costs per unit? I. contribution margin per unit II. number of units sold III. operating cash flow per unit IV. net profit per unit A. I and II only B. III and IV only C. II, III, and IV only D. I, III, and IV only E. I, II, III, and IV 32. Which one of the following is defined by its mean and its standard deviation? A. arithmetic nominal return B. geometric real return C. normal distribution D. variance E. risk premium 33. Assume that the market prices of the securities that trade in a particular market fairly reflect the available information related to those securities. Which one of the following terms best defines that market? A. riskless market B. evenly distributed market C. zero volatility market D. Blume's market E. efficient capital market 34. Stacy purchased a stock last year and sold it today for $3 a share more than her purchase price. She received a total of $0.75 in dividends. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to this investment? A. The dividend yield is expressed as a percentage of the selling price. B. The capital gain would have been less had Stacy not received the dividends. C. The total dollar return per share is $3. D. The capital gains yield is positive. E. The dividend yield is greater than the capital gains yield. 35. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to a stock investment? I. The capital gains yield can be positive, negative, or zero. II. The dividend yield can be positive, negative, or zero. III. The total return can be positive, negative, or zero. IV. Neither the dividend yield nor the total return can be negative. A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. I and IV only E. IV only 36. Which one of the following statements correctly applies to the period 1926-2007? A. Large-company stocks earned a higher average risk premium than did small-company stocks. B. Intermediate-term government bonds had a higher average return than long-term corporate bonds. C. Large-company stocks had an average annual return of 14.7 percent. D. Inflation averaged 2.6 percent for the period. E. U.S. Treasury bills had a positive average real rate of return. 37. What was the highest annual rate of inflation during the period 1926-2007? A. between 0 and 3 percent B. between 3 and 5 percent C. between 5 and 10 percent D. between 10 and 15 percent E. between 15 and 20 percent 38. The average annual return on small-company stocks was about _____ percent greater than the average annual return on large-company stocks over the period 1926-2007. A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 E. 11 39. To convince investors to accept greater volatility, you must: A. decrease the risk premium. B. increase the risk premium. C. decrease the real return. D. decrease the risk-free rate. E. increase the risk-free rate. 40. According to Jeremy Siegel, the real return on stocks over the long-term has averaged about: A. 6.8 percent B. 8.7 percent C. 10.4 percent D. 12.3 percent E. 14.8 percent 41. Which of the following statements are correct? I. The SML approach is dependent upon a reliable measure of a firm's unsystematic risk. II. The SML approach can be applied to firms that retain all of their earnings. III. The SML approach assumes a firm's future risks are similar to its past risks. IV. The SML approach assumes the reward-to-risk ratio is constant. A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. III and IV only D. I, II, and III only E. II, III, and IV only 42. The capital structure weights used in computing the weighted average cost of capital: A. are based on the book values of total debt and total equity. B. are based on the market value of the firm's debt and equity securities. C. are computed using the book value of the long-term debt and the book value of equity. D. remain constant over time unless the firm issues new securities. E. are restricted to the firm's debt and common stock. 43. Markley and Stearns is a multi-divisional firm that uses its WACC as the discount rate for all proposed projects. Each division is in a separate line of business and each presents risks unique to those lines. Given this, a division within the firm will tend to: A. receive less project funding if its line of business is riskier than that of the other divisions. B. avoid risky projects so it can receive more project funding. C. become less risky over time based on the projects that are accepted. D. have equal probability of receiving funding as compared to the other divisions. E. prefer higher risk projects over lower risk projects. 44. Phil's is a sit-down restaurant that specializes in home-cooked meals. Theresa's is a walk-in deli that specializes in specialty soups and sandwiches. Both firms are currently considering expanding their operations during the summer months by offering pre-wrapped donuts, sandwiches, and wraps at a local beach. Phil's currently has a WACC of 14 percent while Theresa's WACC is 10 percent. The expansion project has a projected net present value of $12,600 at a 10 percent discount rate and a net present value of -$2,080 at a 14 percent discount rate. Which firm or firms should expand and offer food at the local beach during the summer months? A. Phil's only B. Theresa's only C. both Phil's and Theresa's D. neither Phil's nor Theresa's E. cannot be determined from the information provided 45. The pre-tax cost of debt: A. is based on the current yield to maturity of the firm's outstanding bonds. B. is equal to the coupon rate on the latest bonds issued by a firm. C. is equivalent to the average current yield on all of a firm's outstanding bonds. D. is based on the original yield to maturity on the latest bonds issued by a firm. E. has to be estimated as it cannot be directly observed in the market. 46. Which one of the following statements related to the SML approach to equity valuation is correct? Assume the firm uses debt in its capital structure. A. This model considers a firm's rate of growth. B. The model applies only to non-dividend paying firms. C. The model is dependent upon a reliable estimate of the market risk premium. D. The model generally produces the same cost of equity as the dividend growth model. E. This approach generally produces a cost of equity that equals the firm's overall cost of capital. 47. The cost of equity for a firm: A. tends to remain static for firms with increasing levels of risk. B. increases as the unsystematic risk of the firm increases. C. ignores the firm's risks when that cost is based on the dividend growth model. D. equals the risk-free rate plus the market risk premium. E. equals the firm's pretax weighted average cost of capital. 48. Scholastic Toys is considering developing and distributing a new board game for children. The project is similar in risk to the firm's current operations. The firm maintains a debt-equity ratio of 0.40 and retains all profits to fund the firm's rapid growth. How should the firm determine its cost of equity? A. by adding the market risk premium to the aftertax cost of debt B. by multiplying the market risk premium by (1 - 0.40) C. by using the dividend growth model D. by using the capital asset pricing model E. by averaging the costs based on the dividend growth model and the capital asset pricing model 49. When a manager develops a cost of capital for a specific project based on the cost of capital for another firm which has a similar line of business as the project, the manager is utilizing the _____ approach. A. subjective risk B. pure play C. divisional cost of capital D. capital adjustment E. security market line 50. Applying the discounted payback decision rule to all projects may cause: A. some positive net present value projects to be rejected. B. the most liquid projects to be rejected in favor of the less liquid projects. C. projects to be incorrectly accepted due to ignoring the time value of money. D. a firm to become more long-term focused. E. some projects to be accepted which would otherwise be rejected under the payback rule. 51. The current dividend yield on Clayton's Metals common stock is 2.5 percent. The company just paid a $1.48 annual dividend and announced plans to pay $1.54 next year. The dividend growth rate is expected to remain constant at the current level. What is the required rate of return on this stock? A. 6.55 percent B. 6.82 percent C. 7.08 percent D. 7.39 percent E. 7.75 percent 52. Winter Time Adventures is going to pay an annual dividend of $2.86 a share on its common stock next year. This year, the company paid a dividend of $2.75 a share. The company adheres to a constant rate of growth dividend policy. What will one share of this common stock be worth five years from now if the applicable discount rate is 11.7 percent? A. $43.45 B. $43.87 C. $44.15 D. $45.19 E. $47.00 53. Combined Communications is a new firm in a rapidly growing industry. The company is planning on increasing its annual dividend by 15 percent a year for the next 4 years and then decreasing the growth rate to 3.5 percent per year. The company just paid its annual dividend in the amount of $0.20 per share. What is the current value of one share of this stock if the required rate of return is 15.5 percent? A. $1.82 B. $2.04 C. $2.49 D. $2.71 E. $3.05 54. Yesteryear Productions pays no dividend at the present time. The company plans to start paying an annual dividend in the amount of $0.40 a share for two years commencing four years from today. After that time, the company plans on paying a constant $0.75 a share annual dividend indefinitely. How much are you willing to pay to buy a share of this stock today if your required return is 11.6 percent? A. $3.78 B. $4.22 C. $4.37 D. $4.71 E. $4.98 55. Beatrice Markets is expecting a period of intense growth and has decided to retain more of its earnings to help finance that growth. As a result, it is going to reduce its annual dividend by 30 percent a year for the next 2 years. After that, it will maintain a constant dividend of $2.50 a share. Last year, the company paid $3.60 as the annual dividend per share. What is the market value of this stock if the required rate of return is 14.5 percent? A. $14.63 B. $16.70 C. $18.08 D. $19.61 E. $21.23 56. You are considering the following two mutually exclusive projects. The required rate of return is 14.6 percent for project A and 13.8 percent for project B. Which project should you accept and why? A. project A; because it has the higher required rate of return B. project A; because its NPV is about $4,900 more than the NPV of project B C. project B; because it has the largest total cash inflow D. project B; because it has the largest cash inflow in year one E. project B; because it has the lower required return 57. You are considering two mutually exclusive projects with the following cash flows. Which project(s) should you accept if the discount rate is 8.5 percent? What if the discount rate is 13 percent? A. accept project A as it always has the higher NPV B. accept project B as it always has the higher NPV C. accept A at 8.5 percent and B at 13 percent D. accept B at 8.5 percent and A at 13 percent E. accept B at 8.5 percent and neither at 13 percent 58. You are considering two independent projects with the following cash flows. The required return for both projects is 16 percent. Given this information, which one of the following statements is correct? A. You should accept Project A and reject Project B based on their respective NPVs. B. You should accept Project B and reject Project A based on their respective NPVs. C. You should accept Project A and reject Project B based on their respective IRRs. D. You should accept Project B and reject Project A based on their respective IRRs. E. You should accept both projects based on both the NPV and IRR decision rules. 59. Cool Water Drinks is considering a proposed project with the following cash flows. Should this project be accepted based on the combined approach to the modified internal rate of return if both the discount rate and the reinvestment rate are 12.6 percent? Why or why not? A. Yes; The MIRR is 8.81 percent. B. Yes; The MIRR is 9.23 percent. C. No; The MIRR is 8.81 percent. D. No; The MIRR is 9.06 percent. E. No; The MIRR is 9.23 percent. 60. You would like to invest in the following project. Sis, your boss, insists that only projects returning at least $1.06 in today's dollars for every $1 invested can be accepted. She also insists on applying a 14 percent discount rate to all cash flows. Based on these criteria, you should: A. accept the project because the PI is 0.90. B. accept the project because the PI is 1.04. C. accept the project because the PI is 1.11. D. reject the project because the PI is 0.90. E. reject the project because the PI is 0.96. 61. Cool Comfort currently sells 300 Class A spas, 450 Class C spas, and 200 deluxe model spas each year. The firm is considering adding a mid-class spa and expects that if it does it can sell 375 of them. However, if the new spa is added, Class A sales are expected to decline to 225 units while the Class C sales are expected to decline to 200. The sales of the deluxe model will not be affected. Class A spas sell for an average of $12,000 each. Class C spas are priced at $6,000 and the deluxe model sells for $17,000 each. The new mid-range spa will sell for $8,000. What is the value of the erosion? A. $600,000 B. $1,200,000 C. $1,800,000 D. $2,400,000 E. $3,900,000 62. Crafter's Supply purchased some fixed assets 2 years ago at a cost of $38,700. It no longer needs these assets so it is going to sell them today for $25,000. The assets are classified as 5-year property for MACRS. What is the net cash flow from this sale if the firm's tax rate is 30 percent? A. $13,122.20 B. $18,576.00 C. $20,843.68 D. $23,072.80 E. $25,211.09 63. You own some equipment that you purchased 4 years ago at a cost of $216,000. The equipment is 5-year property for MACRS. You are considering selling the equipment today for $75,500. Which one of the following statements is correct if your tax rate is 35 percent? A. The tax due on the sale is $26,425. B. The book value today is $178,675.20. C. The accumulated depreciation to date is $37,324.80. D. The taxable amount on the sale is $37,324.80. E. The aftertax salvage value is $62,138.68. 64. Jasper Metals is considering installing a new molding machine which is expected to produce operating cash flows of $73,000 a year for 7 years. At the beginning of the project, inventory will decrease by $16,000, accounts receivables will increase by $21,000, and accounts payable will increase by $15,000. All net working capital will be recovered at the end of the project. The initial cost of the molding machine is $249,000. The equipment will be depreciated straight-line to a zero book value over the life of the project. The equipment will be salvaged at the end of the project creating a $48,000 aftertax cash flow. At the end of the project, net working capital will return to its normal level. What is the net present value of this project given a required return of 14.5 percent? A. $77,211.20 B. $79,418.80 C. $82,336.01 D. $84,049.74 E. $87,925.54 65. Precise Machinery is analyzing a proposed project. The company expects to sell 2,100 units, give or take 5 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $260 and the expected fixed costs are $589,000. Cost estimates are considered accurate within a plus or minus 4 percent range. The depreciation expense is $129,000. The sales price is estimated at $750 per unit, plus or minus 2 percent. What is the sales revenue under the worst case scenario? A. $1,686,825 B. $1,496,250 C. $1,466,325 D. $1,543,500 E. $1,620,675 66. Miller Mfg. is analyzing a proposed project. The company expects to sell 8,000 units, plus or minus 2 percent. The expected variable cost per unit is $11 and the expected fixed costs are $287,000. The fixed and variable cost estimates are considered accurate within a plus or minus 5 percent range. The depreciation expense is $68,000. The tax rate is 32 percent. The sales price is estimated at $64 a unit, give or take 3 percent. What is the operating cash flow under the best case scenario? A. $144,150 B. $148,475 C. $107,146 D. $168,630 E. $174,220 67. Last year, you purchased 500 shares of Analog Devices, Inc. stock for $11.16 a share. You have received a total of $120 in dividends and $7,190 from selling the shares. What is your capital gains yield on this stock? A. 26.70 percent B. 26.73 percent C. 28.85 percent D. 29.13 percent E. 31.02 percent 68. Last year, you purchased a stock at a price of $47.10 a share. Over the course of the year, you received $2.40 per share in dividends while inflation averaged 3.4 percent. Today, you sold your shares for $49.50 a share. What is your approximate real rate of return on this investment? A. 6.30 percent B. 6.79 percent C. 7.18 percent D. 9.69 percent E. 10.19 percent 69. A stock had returns of 11 percent, -18 percent, -21 percent, 5 percent, and 34 percent over the past five years. What is the standard deviation of these returns? A. 18.74 percent B. 20.21 percent C. 20.68 percent D. 22.60 percent E. 23.49 percent 70. A stock had annual returns of 3.6 percent, -8.7 percent, 5.6 percent, and 11.1 percent over the past four years. Which one of the following best describes the probability that this stock will produce a return of 20 percent or more in a single year? A. less than 0.1 percent B. less than 0.5 percent but greater than 0.1 percent C. less than 1.0 percent but greater the 0.5 percent D. less than 2.5 percent but greater than 1.0 percent E. less than 5 percent but greater than 2.5 percent 71. The Shoe Outlet has paid annual dividends of $0.65, $0.70, $0.72, and $0.75 per share over the last four years, respectively. The stock is currently selling for $26 a share. What is this firm's cost of equity? A. 7.56 percent B. 7.93 percent C. 10.38 percent D. 10.53 percent E. 11.79 percent 72. Highway Express has paid annual dividends of $1.16, $1.20, $1.25, $1.10, and $0.95 over the past five years respectively. What is the average dividend growth rate? A. -4.51 percent B. -3.60 percent C. 2.28 percent D. 2.47 percent E. 4.39 percent 73. Electronics Galore has 950,000 shares of common stock outstanding at a market price of $38 a share. The company also has 40,000 bonds outstanding that are quoted at 106 percent of face value. What weight should be given to the debt when the firm computes its weighted average cost of capital? A. 42 percent B. 46 percent C. 50 percent D. 54 percent E. 58 percent 74. Wayco Industrial Supply has a pre-tax cost of debt of 7.6 percent, a cost of equity of 14.3 percent, and a cost of preferred stock of 8.5 percent. The firm has 220,000 shares of common stock outstanding at a market price of $27 a share. There are 25,000 shares of preferred stock outstanding at a market price of $41 a share. The bond issue has a face value of $550,000 and a market quote of 101.2. The company's tax rate is 37 percent. What is the firm's weighted average cost of capital? A. 10.18 percent B. 10.84 percent C. 11.32 percent D. 12.60 percent E. 12.81 percent 75. Travis & Sons has a capital structure which is based on 40 percent debt, 5 percent preferred stock, and 55 percent common stock. The pre-tax cost of debt is 7.5 percent, the cost of preferred is 9 percent, and the cost of common stock is 13 percent. The company's tax rate is 39 percent. The company is considering a project that is equally as risky as the overall firm. This project has initial costs of $325,000 and annual cash inflows of $87,000, $279,000, and $116,000 over the next three years, respectively. What is the projected net present value of this project? A. $68,211.04 B. $68,879.97 C. $69,361.08 D. $74,208.18 E. $76,011.23

 

Paper#13604 | Written in 18-Jul-2015

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